Last time Bishop Bryan introduced you to the problematic translations that gave rise to both Jesus and Satan being referred to under the same Biblical reference (i.e., satan {Hebrew for accuser} lucifer {Latin for Morning Star/Light-bearer} with the lower cases intentional). On Part 2, he will discuss the theological, esoteric, and mystical implications of this seemingly benign issue of semantics. Is the traditional interpretation correct? Is this just a play on Satan wanting to be worshiped like God? Is it simply an awkward translation problem? Or is there something deeper at work that only a reference to Hindu emanations can clarify? Find out!
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